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Mutual Trust Bank (MTB) Exam Question Solution:
Exam Type: MCQ + Written
Post Name: Management Trainee Officer (MTO)
Exam Date: 28 September 2018
Exam Time: 10.00 AM to 12.00 PM
N.B: Only shortlisted candidates are notified via email. Please check your Email and download the Admit Card.
See Mutual Trust Bank (MTB) Exam Question Solution below:
Section A: English Language and Communication
Mutual Trust Bank MTO Exam 2018 (1-4) Read the passage and answer the question
Birds have evolved many physical attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important for adjustable, large hearts and light bones play critical roles. To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings. Wings are enlarged so that the air above the wing is forced to move faster than air below the wing. This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift, which pushes the bird up. Different wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight requires long wings and an ability to soar. Other birds need superior measurability. Finches and … have short, broad wings. Faster birds like hawks, have built-in spoilers that reduce turbulence while flying. This shows a steeper angle of attack without stalling. Tails have evolved for specialized use. The tails act like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by speeding out their tails as they land. This adaptation allows them to make sudden controlled steps on branches or on prey. Flight takes muscle strength. Birds have specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart and provide necessary oxygen to the muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of the bird’s body weight. On pigeons, it accounts for a third of their total body weight. Birds carry no excessive baggage. The have hollow feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to maintain strength. Birds fly to find prey, escape predators and attracts mates in other words to survive.
01. What is the main idea of the passage?
a) wings are the most important attribute of birds
b) Different wing Types evolved for different ways of flight
c) Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival
d) Birds fly for many reasons
Answer: c) Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival
02. As per the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying?
a) Long wings with hollow feathers
b) Higher air pressure below than above the wings
c) spreading out their tails
d) Superior muscle strength
Answer: b) Higher air pressure below than above the wings
03. The word “prolonged” in the passage could be replaced by
a) high altitude
b) specialized
c) predatory
d) sustained
Answer: d) sustained
04. As per the passage, what benefits come from having built in spoilers?
a) an ability to fly faster
b) A steeper angle of diving for prey
c) Prolonged flight
d) Superior measurability
Answer: b) A steeper angle of diving for prey
Mutual Trust Bank MTO Exam 2018 (5-8) Find out which underlined parts (a, b, c and d) of the following sentences has an error.
05. Heat rays are (a)harmless, (b)but nuclear radiation can have a (c)highly damaging effect (d)into living cells.
Answer: (d)
Exp: on
06. If one plans (a)to hike in the Sundarbans, (b)you should prepare (c)for the (d)probability of encountering a tiger.
Answer: (b)
Exp: you এর পরিবর্তে one বসবে।
07. (a)A heat exchanger is a device (b)in which (c)heat taken from a hot liquid or gas in order to warm a (d)cold one.
Answer: (c)
Exp: heat is taken…..
08. If tulip bulbs are planted (a)in the fall, they (b)could have been expected (c)to bloom the (d)following spring.
Answer: (c)
Exp: to bloom in
Mutual Trust Bank MTO Exam 2018 (9-12) Complete the sentence with appropriate word(s) or phrase(s):
09. Recent linguistic research has shed light on the role played by ______, regardless of their gender.
a) how people speak
b) how people were spoken
c) how do people speak
d) people are speaking
Answer: a) how people speak
10. Autoimmune disease is a general term for several disorders ______ the body produces antibodies.
a) in which
b) which
c) in that
d) how
Answer: b) which
11. In most species of seal, the females are not __________.
a) as large as the males
b) as larger than the males
c) larger the male
d) the males as large
Answer: a) as large as the males
12. Kites come in all shapes and sizes, some _____ a person.
a) large enough carrying
b) enough large to carry
c) large enough to carry
d) large to carry enough
Answer: c) large enough to carry
Mutual Trust Bank MTO Exam 2018 Q(13-15). Select the pair that expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original.
13. ANTIBIOTIC : INFECTION
a) hormone : modification
b) enzyme : digestion
c) narcotic : dependency
d) coagulant: bleeding
Answer: d) coagulant: bleeding
14. EULOGY : PRAISE
a) comedy : Laughter
b) elegy: lament
c) tirade : awe
d) epic : contempt
Answer: b) elegy: lament
15. CANDLE : WAX
a) metal: corrosion
b) leather : vinyl
c) curtain : pleat
d) tire : rubber
Answer: d) tire : rubber
Section B: Mathematics and Financial Aptitude
Mutual Trust Bank MTO Exam 2018 (16-30): Choose the correct answer.
16. A case contains c cartons. Each carton contains b boxes, and each box contains 100 paper clips. How many paper clips are contained in 2 cases?
A) 100bc
b) 100b/c
c) 200bc
d) 200/bc
Answer: c) 200bc
Exp:
Paperclips in a case = 100×b×c
So, paper clips in 2 cases = 2×100×b×c = 200bc
17. When Mr X imported a certain item, he paid a 7percent import tax on the portion of the item in excess of tk. 1000. If the amount of the import tax that Mr. X was tk. 87.50, what was the cost of the item?
a) tk. 1600
b) tk. 2250
c) tk. 2450
d) tk. 2730
Answer: b) tk. 2250
Solution:
Let the value of the item be x,
then 0.07(x−1000) = 87.50
Or, x−1000 = 1250
Or, x=2250.
18. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long as it is wide. If 360 yards of fencing including the gate will surrounding enclose the garden, what will be the length of the garden, in yards?
a) 120
b) 140
c) 160
d) 180
Answer: a) 120
Solution:
Let,
the width and length of the garden are x and 2x, respectively.
Thus,
2(x+2x)=360
Or, 6x=360
Or, 2x=120
19. 0.1 + (0.1)2 + (0.1)3 =?
a) 0.0011
b) 0.111
c) 0.1211
d) 0.2341
Answer: b) 0.111
Solution:
1/10 + 1/100 + 1 /1000
= (100+10+1)/100
=111/1000
=0.111
20. What is the total interest on Tk. 800 at 12.5% per annum for 9 months?
a) Tk. 75
b) Tk. 110
c) Tk. 88
d) Tk. 22
Answer: Tk. 75
Solution:
I =Pnr
=800×(9/12)×(12.5)/100
=75
21. The price of a product is 120% of its cost. The product was sold at 10% discount on the price. If the profit is Tk. 2400, what is the cost of the product?
a) Tk 34000
b) Tk 27500
c) Tk 23000
d) None of these
Answer:
22. A worker makes 4 products in 5/3 hours. How many products can he make in 125 minutes?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) None of these
Answer: b) 5
Solution:
5/3 hrs = (5×60)/3 min = 100 min
Now,
In 100 min 4 products
In 1 min 4/100 products
In 125 min (4×125)/100 = 5 products
23. The price of lunch for 15 people was Tk 207.00 including 15% service charges. What was the average price of lunch per person excluding the service charge?
a) Tk 11.73
b) Tk 12.00
c) Tk 13.80
d) Tk 15.87
Answer: b) Tk 12.00
Solution:
Including 15% service charge,
If price is 115, real price is 100 tk
If price is 1, real price is 100/115 tk
If price is 207, real price is (100×207)/115 = 180 tk
So, total price excluding service charge = 180 tk
So, average price = 180/15 = 12 tk
24. For what value of x between -4 and 4, inclusive, is the value of x2 – 10x + 16 the greatest?
a) 4
b) -2
c) 0
d) -4
Answer: d) -4
Solution:
When x = -4, x2 – 10x + 16 = (-4)2 –(-4)×10 + 16 = 72
When x = 4, x2 – 10x + 16 = (4)2 –(4)×10 + 16 = -8
25. 82x+1 = 23x+6 then x = ?
a) 2
b) -2
c) 1
d) -1
Answer: c) 1
Solution:
82x+1 = 23x+6
Or, 23(2x+1) = 23x+6
Or, 3(2x+1) = 3x+6
Or, 6x+3 = 3x+6
Or, x = 1
26. An item was sold at 6% profit. If the cost was 4% less and the selling price was Tk 4 more, the trader would have made a profit of 12.5%. What was the cost of the item?
a) Tk 180
b) Tk 200
c) Tk 250
d) Tk 275
Answer: b) Tk 200
Solution:
At 6% profit, selling price = 106
At 4% less,=96 tk, and earn 12.5% profit
so, selling price =96 + 96×12.5%= 108
So at 4% less excess profit is = 108-106=2
When earing 2 tk more the cost of the item is 100 tk
When earing 1 tk more the cost of the item is 100/2 tk
When earing 4 tk more the cost of the item is (100×4)/2 = 200 tk
27. What is 10% of y/3 if 2y/3 is 10% of 400?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) None of these
Answer: a) 2
Solution:
2y/3 = 10% of 400
Or, 2y/3 = 40
Or, y= 60
Now,
10% of y/3 = (10/100)×60/3 = 2
28. If an organization increases its staff salary by 25%, by what percent must it now decrease to return to the original amount?
a) 15%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) 25%
Answer: c) 20%
Solution:
Let increase ( in % ) in salary be denoted by A and decrease in salary denoted by B.
Change in salary given by:
A + B + AB/100
25 – B + (-25B)/100 = 0
Or, B + 0.25B = 25
Or, B = 25/1.25 = 20%
Negative sign indicates DECREASE in salary.
29. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 2/3. If 2 boys leave and 4 girls join the class, the ratio of boys to girls become 3/2. How many girls were there in the class originally?
a) 16
b) 20
c) 24
d) ,None of these
Answer: (সংখ্যাগুলো বোঝা যায়নি। তবে নিম্নরূপে সমাধান হবে।)
Solution:
Let,
Number of boys = 2x and girls = 3x
ATQ,
(2x-2)/(3x+4) = 3/2
Or, 9x+12 = 4x-4
Or, 5x = -16
Or, x = (-)16/5
Number of girls = 3×(-)16/5
30. Mr. A owns 40% stack in the XYZ Company. Mr. B owns 15000 shares and Mr. C owns rest of the shares of the company. Mr. C owns 25% more shares than Mr. A. how many shares does Mr. A own?
a) 45000
b) 50000
c) 55000
d) 60000
Answer: d) 60000
Let,
A owns 40
C owns = 40 + 25% of 40 = 50
B owns = 100 – (40+50) = 10
10 means 15000
1 means 15000/10
40 means (15000×40)/10=60000
Section C: Intelligent Questions
(31-40) Choose the correct answer:
31. Which one is different from the rest three?
a) (এই শব্দটা বোঝা যায়নি)
b) Attachment
c) Enmity
d) Friendship
Answer: c) Enmity
Exp: a বোঝা না গেলেও Process of Elimination পদ্ধতিতে আমরা উত্তরটা বের করতে পারি।
Attachment এবং Friendship প্রায় সমার্থক। Enmity বিপরীত। a তে যে শব্দটা বসবে তাকে অবশ্যই সমার্থক শব্দদ্বয়ের অর্থানুযায়ী হতে হবে।
32. If a word CORNER is written as GSVRTV, how can CENTRAL be written in the code?
a) GNFKER
b) DFOUSBM
c) GIRXVEP
d) GIRYVEP
Answer: c) GIRXVEP
Exp: Each letter of the word is moved four steps forward to obtain the code.
33. Horse is related to hoof in the same way as Eagle is related to –
a) Claw
b) Clutch
c) Leg
d) Foot
Answer: a) Claw
Exp: As the foot of the ‘Horse’ is called ‘Hoof’ in the same way the foot of the ‘Eagle’ is called ‘Claw‘.
34. Which of the following numbers can be placed at the sign of interrogation?
| 6 | 10 | 14 |
| 12 | ? | 22 |
| 19 | 25 | 31 |
a) 9
b) 11
c) 13
d) 17
Answer: d) 17
Exp:
| A | B | C | B=(A+C)/2 |
| 6 | 10 | 14 | |
| 12 | ? | 22 | |
| 19 | 25 | 31 |
35. If C = 3, CEP = 24, then what will be the value of HUX?
a) 69
b) 49
c) 51
d) 53
Answer: d) 53
Exp:
| C=3 | H=8 |
| E=5 | U=21 |
| P=16 | X=24 |
| CEP =3+5+16=24 | HUX=8+21+2453 |
36. R is taller than A. V is taller than S and R. Who among them is the shortest?
a) R
b) S
c) A
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: c) A
Exp: V > S and R > A
37. A postman goes straight 7 km eastwards, then turns right and goes straight 3km and turns right again and goes straight 10 km. To what direction is he now from the starting point?
a) South-west
b) North-west
c) North-east
d) South-east
Answer: c) North-east
38. Which of the following words cannot be made from the word PARAPHERNALIA?
a) PEAR
b) PENAL
c) RENAL
d) PRAISE
Answer: d) PRAISE
Exp: PARAPHERNALIA এর মধ্যে S নেই যা PRAISE এ আছে।
39. R is the brother of S and M is the father of R. J is the brother of P and P is the daughter of S. Who is the uncle of J?
a) P
b) M
c) S
d) None of these
Answer: d) None of these
Exp: শুরুটা R দিয়ে কিনা বোঝা যায়নি। তবে R দিয়ে শুরু হলে J এর Uncle হবে R. M হবে J & P এর Grandfather.
40. How many 3’s are there in the following sequence which are neither preceded by 6 nor immediately followed by 9?
9 3 6 6 3 9 5 9 3 7 8 9 1 6 3 9 6 3 9
a) One
b) two
c) three
d) None of these
Answer: b) two
Section D: Analytical Ability and Critical Reasoning
Mutual Trust Bank MTO Exam 2018 (41-46): Read the information and answer the question.
When they hold a meeting, seven company executives – T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z – sit at a rectangular table. Three executives sit along one side of the table, and three sit along the other side, each directly opposite one of the other three. The seventh sits at the head of the table. There is no seat at the foot of the table.
U always sits in one of the two seats farthest from the head of the table. Y and V always sit next to each other. V never sits next to Z. If Z does not sit at the head of the table, W sits there.
41. If W sits directly opposite T, X must sit next to which of the following executives?
a) T
b) U
c) V
d) Z
Answer: b) U
Exp:
| Y | V | W | |
| Z | |||
| U | X | T | |
Or,
| U | X | T | |
| Z | |||
| V | Y | W | |
Both cases X sits next to U.
42. If T sits directly opposite Z and next to V, which executive must sit directly opposite U?
a) V
b) W
c) X
d) Y
Answer: d) Y
Exp:
| Y | V | T | |
| W | |||
| U | X | Z | |
43. If Z sits directly opposite X, which executive must sit next to U?
a) T
b) V
c) W
d) Y
Answer: a) T
Exp:
| V | Y | Z | |
| W | |||
| U | T | X | |
Or,
| Y | V | X | |
| W | |||
| U | T | Z | |
44. If T and U sit immediately on either side of X, the executive sitting directly opposite X must be either
a) W or V
b) W or Z
c) Y or V
d) Y or Z
Answer: c) Y or V
Exp:
| V | Y | Z | |
| W | |||
| U | X | T | |
Or
| U | X | T | |
| Z | |||
| Y | V | W | |
45. If W sits directly opposite U and next to T, the two executives sitting immediately on either side of X must be
a) Y and V
b) Y and W
c) T and Z
d) T and V
Answer: c) T and Z
Exp:
| U | V | Y | |
| Z | |||
| W | T | X | |
46. If Z sits at the head of the table, Y directly opposite U, and V immediately on X’s left, what is the total Number of possible seating arrangements of the executives?
a)1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b) 2
Exp:
| U | T/W | W/T | |
| Z | |||
| Y | V | X | |
(47-50) Read the information and answer the questions.
47. A company is considering changing its policy concerning daily working hours. Currently, this company requires all employees to arrive at work at 8 a.m. The proposed policy would permit each employee to decide when to arrive from as early as 6 a.m. to as late as 11 a.m. The adoption of this policy would be most likely to decrease employees’ productivity if the employees job functions required them to-
a) work without interruption from other employees
b) consult at least once a day with employees from other companies
c) submit their work for a supervisors’ eventual approval
d) interact frequently with each other throughout the entire workday
Answer: d) interact with each other throughout the entire workday
Solution:
a) work without interruption from other employees.
PROBLEM: The time people come in should not have any effect on whether people get interrupted.
b) consult at least once a day with employees from other companies.
PROBLEM: Consulting with other companies once a day should be easy, as everyone will still be there for at least 6 hours of a typical work day.
c) submit their work for a supervisor’s eventual approval.
PROBLEM: Notice the word “eventual”. If this implied that the supervisor need to sign off on everybody’s work THAT DAY, this might be the correct answer. But the implication here is that the supervisor could “eventually” approve it, which doesn’t link it to any specific time.
d) interact with each other throughout the entire workday
ANSWER: Contrast with C. In this case, they use the word “entire”. Well, obviously this is going to get in the way of interaction through the “entire” work day. This question really does revolve around the use of the qualifiers “eventual” and “Entire”.
48. While many people think of genetic manipulation of food crops as being aimed at developing larger and larger plant varieties, some plant breeders have in fact concentrated on discovering or producing dwarf varieties, which are roughly half as tall as normal varieties.
Which of the following would, if true, most help to explain the strategy of the plant breeders referred to above?
a) Plant varieties used as food by some are used as ornamentals by others.
b) The wholesale prices of a given crop decrease as the supply of it increases.
c) Crops once produced exclusively for human consumption are often now used for animal feed.
d) Short plants are less vulnerable to strong wind and heavy rains.
Answer: d) Short plants are less vulnerable to strong wind and heavy rains.
Solution:
Unstated Premise of the argument: It is beneficial to produce dwarf varieties
Conclusion of the argument: “some plant breeders have in fact concentrated on discovering or producing dwarf varieties,”
Explaining this strategy is the same as strengthening the argument.
D is the answer because it directly shows the benefit of the dwarf varieties which is that of reducing the wastage. B doesn’t conclusively show that dwarf varieties increase the supply of a crop.
49. A major network news organization experienced a drop in viewership in the week following the airing of a controversial report on the economy. The network also received a very large number of complaints regarding the report. The network, however, maintains that negative reactions to the report had nothing to do with its loss of viewers.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the network’s position?
a) The other major network news organizations reported similar reductions in viewership during the same week.
b) The viewers who registered complaints with the network were regular viewers of the news organization’s programs.
c) Major network news organizations publicly attribute drops in viewership to their own reports only when they receive complaints about those reports.
d) Most network news viewers rely on network news broadcasts as their primary source of information regarding the economy.
Answer: a) The other major network news organizations reported similar reductions in viewership during the same week.
Solution:
It says that other network had similar decline in viewership which could mean there were other probable causes (holidays, power outage etc.)
50. In recent years many cabinetmakers have been winning acclaim as artists. But since furniture must be useful, cabinetmakers must exercise their craft with an eye to the practical utility of their product. For this reason, cabinetmaking is not art.
Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reason given for that conclusion?
a) Some furniture is made to be placed in museums, where it will not be used by anyone.
b) Some cabinetmakers are more concerned than others with the practical utility of the products they produce.
c) Cabinetmakers should be more concerned with the practical utility of their products than they currently are.
d) An object is not an art object if its maker pays attention to the objects practical utility.
Answer: d) An object is not an art object if its maker pays attention to the objects practical utility.
Solution:
Premise :Since furniture must be useful, cabinetmakers must exercise their craft with an eye to the practical utility of their product.
Conclusion :cabinetmaking is not art.
a) Some furniture is made to be placed in museums, where it will not be used by anyone. – not a good assumption to conclude that cabinetmaking is not art
b) Some cabinetmakers are more concerned than others with the practical utility of the products they produce. – opposite answer , actually weakens the conclusion
c) Cabinetmakers should be more concerned with the practical utility of their products than they currently are.
– it looks like they are already concerned that means some of the furniture is not art . against the conclusion as conclusion captures all the products that cabinetmakers create , reject this option
d) An object is not an art object if its maker pays attention to the object’s practical utility. – This is your answer
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